I came across a blog post this morning in which a question was asked that gave me pause. Not because I saw the validity of it, but more that it seemed a bit off-base. However, I’m not a history buff so perhaps there really is something to what this person was asking. I’m presenting a brief from the post for readers to ponder.
So, it was just reported that the number of coronavirus cases crossed the 200,000 threshhold. However, what is not being widely reported is that 32 million Americans have had the flu (so far). That’s 200k vs 32 million.
Here’s my question. Why is the nation in lockdown over the coronavirus, but not over the flu. In fact, the flu (or any other infectious disease for that matter) has never caused the country to be on lockdown. Not even the H1N1 global pandemic of 2009, with 60 million Americans infected, shut down the country.
So what do you think? Is there something to what this person has written? Or is it comparing apples and oranges?